Cyclescheme Changes to fair Value

When do the changes start ?
And could they be applied retrospectivley - I used to work for the revenue - and this may not be as daft as it first sounds - as FMV was never stated - or agreed - you just paid whatever you were told - or returned the bike.
So if your FMV was 5% - but is now judged to be 30% - you could quite feasibly be asked to pay the difference, regardless on when you 'purchased' the bike.
And could they be applied retrospectivley - I used to work for the revenue - and this may not be as daft as it first sounds - as FMV was never stated - or agreed - you just paid whatever you were told - or returned the bike.
So if your FMV was 5% - but is now judged to be 30% - you could quite feasibly be asked to pay the difference, regardless on when you 'purchased' the bike.
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how could your FMV have previously been one value, and now changed? If you haven't reached the end of the hire period then the FMV can't have been set, so it can't change, surely?
I think if you've already finished the salary sacrifice period and paid the transfer fee, then you're ok. But if you haven't made he final payment yet, they could say it's, for example, 30%. You wouldn't necessarily have to pay 30% though. But if on a £1k bike the FMV was 30%, you could pay £50, then pay tax on the remaining £250 'benefit'.
"As I said last time, it won't happen again."
As for the new FMV - well my employer has dealt with it by reducing the monthly payments so that we pay a final payment of 25%, but ultimately end up paying in total pretty much what we would have done with the 10% FMV.
My question is though: Is it compulsory for me to pay this?
eg: as above, could we "threaten" to not pay the final value fees? Thereby putting them in an awkward position with lots of second hand bikes sat around.
You could agree with your employer to postpone the fair value payment for a few years, becuase in 5 years time it will be around 2-5%
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05 Trek 1000 Custom build
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You don't have to pay the final value fee. If you don't pay it the bike remains the property of your company. Also, your company doesn't have to give you the option to pay a final value fee. They could just take the bike off you.
Mind you, the bike will have done many thousands of miles by this time next year so it would be hard to value it over the 5% anyway.......
Ultimately no-one has to buy the bike. It's an optional final payment to buy the bike, so in theory at least your employer can't force you to pay. By dragging it out for a year and eventually saying 'Oh ok then I'll buy it', it's now two years old and not worth as much.
Confused :?:
Indeed, I had thought that quite the opposite applied, otherwise I'm sure there would be a lot of people here trying to buy old laptops etc for virtually nothing, but we're told that this isn't allowed for tax reasons.
They can enforce it because employees sign to say they accept the terms of the hire agreement. If someone doesn't like it they don't care and the fact is it doesn't put people off anyway.
05 Spesh Enduro Expert
05 Trek 1000 Custom build
Speedily Singular Thingy
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We were charged £12.50 Third Party Insurance at the start, which I kicked up a fuss about to no avail (combined with my home insurance and my British Cycling Insurance, I reckon I was covered 3x for Third Party - but it wasn't optional - gits!)
So did mine, and that was my agreement as well.
Except because the payment is scheduled to be taken out of my salary this month, even though we agreed that rate in August before the new "clarifiaction" rules, I've been told I am subject to the new rule and the agreement we had had been ripped up
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Facebook? No. Just say no.
So if your employer chooses to keep ownership of the bike, then you make no extra final payment. Presumably they can do what ever they want with the bike as its their bike?
So if they decide decide to donate it to a charitable cause ie You, it there anything stopping them from doing so?
I'm sure they could do this if you set yourself up as a registered charity :roll:
The Taxman isn't stupid.
(removed posts - better safe than sorry!)
All I'm saying is, if the tax man takes a close look at your scheme, he will probably find you're in breach of the scheme, and thus liable for all the tax you've saved.
And to that end, I wouldn't be talking about it on a public forum.
EDIT - Of course, there is a chance that your scheme hasn't actually been set up to take advantage of the HMRC Bike to Work Scheme, in which case none of the above is true - though not sure how or why your employer would offer to pay your tax for you, and then again, surely what you're getting is a benefit in kind which would be liable for taxation?
It's a 2009 tricross sport with a few scrapes and scratches from 2 crashes... What do you reckon it's worth?
Dunno, but if you've got or could borrow some old, rusty bike bits I'd stick them on the Tricross before you take it for its valuation.
The only thing going for it I think is that it effectively a HP agreement and allows payment in installments. Right or wrong, like most things tax related, it is the richest who benefit the most.
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Well state the bleeding obvious why don't you? Higher rate tax payers will benefit more as tax benefit is also at the higher rate. Unless you want to increase the administration of a simple scheme by an order of magnitude just to prevent the awful nightmare of higher rate ta-payers getting a reciprocal benefit, that's how it works. You pay 40%, you get a reduction at that 40%. Not really a big problem is it? Really?
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A tad sensitive and a bit of an over reaction....somebody got out of bed the wrong side today.
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